SET-I
Q1. Pirating software is an act of violating
a. Equity b. Ethics c. Law d. None of the these
Answer C)
Q2. Publishing false information in internet is an issue of
a. Computer ethics b. Morality c. Computer equity d. Digital Divide
Answer A)
3. Ethics must guide technology in the direction of
a. Political justice. b. Cultural justice. c. Social justice. d. None of the Above.
Answer C)
4. Supposing you are a journalist, is it ethical to use a tape record your Interview process without the consent of the person concerned?
a) Yes b) No c) Do not know d)None of these
Answer B)
5. "We wish to be good citizens of every community in which we operate." This is
a. Ethical Code b. Political and Social Code c. Legal Rule d. Legal Act
Answer A)
6. If you believe in making decisions for the good of most people, you can be described as following which school of thought?
a. utilitarianism b. teleology c. deontology d. Egoism
Answer A)
7. Which statement is/are true?
a. Ethics is not synonymous to religious morality or moral theology
b. Ethics is the principle that guide the human behaviour
c. The terms 'ethics' and 'morality' are not synonymous terms
d. All of the above
Answer D)
8. Business ethics deals primarily with
a. social responsibility
b. the pricing of products and services
c. moral obligation
d. being unfair to the competition
Answer D)
9. A philanthropist is someone who
a. buys products which have a positive impact on society
b. boycotts products which have a negative impact on society
c. both (a) and (b)
d. recognises the social impact of business on society
Answer D)
10. Kavita is an ethically centered production manager so she will ship a
product
a. only after all its problems have been eliminated
b. only if the shipping people use packing material that does not harm the environment
c. only after an ethics committee has approved it
d. as quickly as she can to meet the customer's schedule
Answer A)
11. Decisions and policies that use the _____________approach to decision making attempt to implement social systems, institutions, and environments that everyone depends on and that benefit all people.
a) Utilitarian b) Common good c) Fairness d) Virtue Ethics
Answer B)
12. A person who acts with ________acts in accordance with a personal code of principles
a) Ethics b) Integrity c) Morals d) Virtue
Answer B)
13. The________________ approach to decision making suggests that when faced with a complex ethical dilemma, people do either what they are most comfortable doing or what they think a person they admire would do.
a) Utilitarian b) Common good c) Fairness d) Virtue Ethics
Answer D)
14. ______________is the concept that an organization should act ethically by taking accountability for the impact of its actions on the environment, the community, and the welfare of its employees.
a. Corporate social responsibility b. Corporate governance
c. Corporate social entrepreneurship d. Corporate sustainability
Answer A)
15. Which of the following statements best describes a reason why organizations pursue corporate social responsibility (CSR) goals and promote a work environment in which employees are encouraged to act ethically when making business decisions?
a. To enjoy higher employee turnover rates
b. To define a variable approach for dealing with stakeholders
c. To gain the goodwill of the community
d. To increase unfavourable publicity
Answer C)
16. The step in the decision-making process during which the decision makers consider laws, guidelines, policies, and principles that might apply to the decision is the ____________step.
a. develop problem statement
b. implement decision
c. identify alternatives
d. evaluate and choose alternative
Answer D)
17. Which of the following is the most critical step in the decision-making process?
a. Evaluation of the results
b. Identification of alternative solutions
c. Development of a problem statement
d. Implementation of a decision
Answer C)
18. In a for-profit organization, it is the primary objective of the to oversee the organization’s business activities and management for the benefit of shareholders, employees, customers, suppliers, and the community.
a. negotiator b. board of directors
c. corporate ethics officer d. corporate compliance officer
Answer B)
19. A(n)___________ is a statement that highlights an organization’s key ethical issues and identifies the overarching values and principles that are important to the organization and its decision making
a. Code of ethics b. Mission c. Vision d. Policy
Answer A)
20. A complication of the_________ approach to decision making is that measuring and comparing the values of certain benefits and costs is often difficult, if not impossible.
a. fairness b. virtue ethics c. common good d. utilitarian
Answer D)
21. The _____ is a trade group that represents the world's largest software and hardware manufactures.
a. Business Software Association (BSA) b. Business Software Alliance (BSA)
c. International Business Software (IBS) d. International Software Association (ISA)
Answer B)
22. From a legal perspective, IT worker are not recognized as professionals because they are not ___ by the state or federal government.
a. licensed b. sponsored
c. associated d. graded
Answer A)
23. The term ______ distinguishes the person who uses a hardware or software product from the IT workers who develop, install, service and support the product.
a. IT professional shareholder
c. IT user d. Stakeholder
Answer C)
24. In the legal system, compliance usually refers to behavior that is in accordance with ___.
a. personal beliefs b. morality
c. legislation d. ethical codes
Answer C)
25. Decision-making in professional practice and ethical practice
a. involves very different methodologies.
b. involves a similar strategy and process.
c. should be considered separate issues.
d. should be left to supervisors and administrators.
Answer B)
26. A written statement of policies and principles that guides the behaviour of
all employees is called
a. code of ethics b. word of ethics c. ethical dilemma d. None of the above
Answer A)
SET-II
Q1:- E-government is:-
a. can be defined as 'controlling the operation and use of the use.'
b. the same as Internet governance.
c. can be defined as 'the application of e-commerce technologies to government and
public services.'
d. can be defined as 'increasing the participation in Internet use by socially excluded
groups.'
Ans: C
Q2:- Software piracy is:
a. software counterfeiting.
b. the copying of software for use on more than one machine when the license is for single
usage.
c. downloading pirate versions of software over the Internet.
d. client/server overuse of licenses.
e. All of above
Ans: E
Q3:- Which is not a reason a business engages in business ethics?
A) To recover a company’s image after a notorious business scandal
B) To avoid the loss of a good corporate image or being sued for misconduct
C) To enhance global relationships
D) To enhance stakeholder relationships
Ans: C
Q4: What are ethical theories?
A) Ethical theories are the conduct that should be followed in order to have good ethical practices
B) Ethical theories are the rules and principles that determine right and wrong for any given situation
C) Ethical theories are ancient hypothesis’ on how to create good business practice
D) Ethical theories give guidelines on how to achieve a good corporate image
Ans: B
Q5: define Moral Relativism
A. Values determined by the society
B. Values Determined by the family.
C. Values determined by the any organization
D. NonE of these
Ans: A
Q6:- Law is the system of rules of conduct established by the government of a society to maintain
a. Justice
b. Consistency
c. None of these
d. Both A & B
Ans: A
Q7:- Ethics of justice
A) Innocent justice, Guilty justice, Intuitional justice
B) Retributive justice, Processes justice, Compliant justice
C) Innocent justice, Fraudulent justice, Negligent justice
D) Retributive justice, Procedural justice, Distributive justice
Ans:- D
Q8:- What is definition of sustainability?
a.Sustainability means the capacity of a business to survive over time whilst contributing to the local communities and protecting the local environments in which it operates.
b.Sustainability means that business must extend its goals beyond that of adding economic value, to incorporate adding environmental and social value also.
c.Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
d.All of above.
Ans: B
Q9: All definitions of Corporate Social Responsibility recognize that:
a) companies have a responsibility for their impact on society and environment.
b) the natural environment should be the main focus of CSR activities.
c) business ethics is a complex issue.
d) companies must pay equal attention to business ethics and sustainability
Ans:- A
Q10:- What is the main characteristic of the stakeholder approach?
a) The idea that many different groups have a legitimate interest in the corporation
b) It is a critical perspective on corporations and business.
c) A focus on social and environmental responsibilities of a corporation.
d) The assumption that shareholders are not the main stakeholders in the corporation.
Ans:- A
Q11:- Opportunities for social innovation are greatest when:
a) CSR is aligned with a firm's core skills and capabilities.
b) CSR spending of a firm is larger than that of its competitors.
c) CSR is pursued by a firm to improve its reputation.
d) CSR is pursued by a firm to enhance human capital.
Ans:- A
Q12:- what is the problem definition related to:
How often does the problem occur?
What is the impact of the problem?
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Both A and B
Ans:- C
SET-III
Q1. Property of the company belongs to
(a) Company
(b) Share holders
(c) Members
(d) Promoters
Ans A
Q2. Which company shares can be freely transferable
(a) Private Company
(b) Public Company
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans A
Q3. Minimum number of members in case of public company
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans D
Q4. Minimum number of members in case of private company is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Ans B
Q5. Maximum no. of members in case of private company is
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Ans A
Q6. Maximum no .of members in case of public company is
(a) 1
(b) unlimited
(c) 50
(d) 100
Ans B
Q7. Minimum subscription should be received with in ______days
(a) 130
(b) 125
(c) 120
(d) 135
Ans C
Q8.How many months did the company can continue its business u/s 45 _______
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans D
Q9. Which cellular services telecom company announced the Mobile for Good Awards 2016 in partnership with NASSCOM foundation?
(a) Vodafone Foundation
(b) Airtel Foundation
(c) Idea Foundation
(d) None of the above
Ans A
Q10. A person cannot be a director of more than …………… as per the Companies
(Amendment) Act, 2000.
(a) 5 companies.
(b) 10 companies.
(c) 15 companies.
(d) 20 companies.
Ans C
Q11. The first directors of a public company are appointed by the.
(A) Public.
(B) Shareholders.
(C) Promoters.
(D) Government.
Ans C
Q12. According to the companies Act, 1956 a Private limited company must have at
least ………… directors.
(A) Seven.
(B) Three.
(C) Two.
(D) One.
Ans C
Q13. Who may be appointed as a director of a company?
(A) An individual.
(B) A body corporate.
(C) A firm.
(D) An association.
Ans A
Q14. According to section 255 of the companies Act, the Directors must be appointed by the.
(A) Central Government.
(B) Company Law Tribunal.
(C) Company in General Meeting.
(D) Board of Directors.
Ans C
Q15. A company is said to have been registered when?
(A) It files Memorandum of association and Articles of Association.
(B) It gets incorporation certificate with the Registrar of Companies.
(C) It gets certificate for commencement of business.
(D) It actually starts its business.
Ans B
SET-IV(Startups)
Q1 what is the benefit of Startup?
a) Rebate on filing of application
b) Fast-tracking of Startup patent applications
c) Panel of facilitators to assist in filing of IP applications
d) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2 Start-ups are allowed to self-certify their compliance under 6 Labour and 3 Environment laws for a period of how many years from the date of incorporation?
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 4 years
Answer: C
Q3 The government has set aside a corpus fund of ________managed by SIDBI, to provide equity funding support for development and growth of innovation driven enterprises.
a) 10,000 crores
b) 20,000 crores
c) 30,000 crores
d) 40,000 crores
Answer: A
Q4 The profits of recognised Start-ups are exempted from income-tax for a period of how many years?
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 1 year
Answer: B
Q5 Startup India presents to you a list of ______ state government policies who offer benefits to Startups.
a) 15
b) 16
c) 27
d) 17
Answer: D
Q6 What is the Benefit of NASSCOM?
a) Access to strategic investments and grants
b) Faster access to global markets and JV/OEM/partnership options
c) Direct fast access to senior executives
d) All of the above
Answer: D
Q7 After a TV channel and website, what other initiative has been launched to promote cashless payments?
a. Toll free Helpline
b. Nationwide SMS service
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above
Answer: A
Q8 what is the full form of NGDC?
a) NASSCOM Gross Domestic Conference.
b) NASSCOM Game Developer Conference.
c) NASSCOM Game Developer Centre.
d) NASSCOM Game Developer Coordinator.
Answer: B
Q 7 what is the full form of NGF?
a)NASSCOM Gaming Forum
b) NASSCOM Gaming Federation
c) NASSCOM Gaming Facility
d) NASSCOM Grant Forum
Answer: A
Q8 Working Capital Loan has an interest rate of ?
a) 12% to 14%.
b) 12% to 25%.
c) 12% to 16%.
d) 12% to 23%.
Answer: C
Q9 Term Loan has an interest rate between ?
a) 10% and 20%.
b) 10% and 30%.
c) 10% and 40%.
d) 10% and 15%.
Answer : A
Q10 Term loans are secured with a tenure of ________ years.
a) 1-5 years
b) 1-10 years
c) 1-20 years
d) 1-15 years
Answer: B
Q11 Working capital loans are offered typically for a ___month tenure.
a) 2 months
b) 4 months
c) 8 months
d) 12 months
Answer: D
Q12 What is the full form of CGS?
a) The Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme.
b) Corporate Governance Score
c) The College of General Studies
d) centimetre–gram–second.
Answer: A
Q13 An individual can borrow up to _______ Lakh in term loans or working capital loans as per your eligibility and feasibility.
a) RS 100 lakh
b) RS 350 lakh
c) RS 400 lakh
d) RS 500 lakh
Answer: A
Q14 What is the full form of SIDBI?
a) Small Industries Development Bank of Indonesia
b) Small Integrated Deterministic Branch of India
c) Small Industries Development Bank of India
d) Secure Industrial Development Bank of India
Answer: C
Q15 SHISHU stage of MUDRA loan scheme provides maximum amount of ?
a) RS 10 Thousand
b) RS 20 Thousand
c) RS 30 Thousand
d) RS 50 Thousand
Answer : D
Q16 KISHOR stage of MUDRA loan scheme provides maximum amount of ?
a) RS 20 lakhs
b) RS 50 lakhs
c) RS 5 lakhs
d) RS 30 lakhs
Answer : C
Q17 TARUN stage of MUDRA loan scheme provides maximum amount of ?
a) RS 20 lakhs
b) RS 50 lakhs
c) RS 10 lakhs
d) RS 40 lakhs
Answer : C
Q18 Which are the different stages of MUDRA loan scheme?
a) TARUN
b) KISHOR
c) Both
d) Neither TARUN nor KISHOR
Answer : C
Q19 What is the full form of PAC?
a) Project Approval Committee
b) Project Assistance Committee
c) Project Approval Council
d) Premature Atrial Contraction
Answer : A
Q20 The Stand Up India scheme has been started to financially empower whom??
a) SC/ST entrepreneurs only
b) women entrepreneurs only
c) None of the above
d) both SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
Answer: D
Q21 In The Stand Up India scheme one can borrow between Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 CR to start a manufacturing unit, which is to be repaid in how many years?
a) 5 years
b) 7 years
c) 10 years
d) 12 years
Answer : B
Q22 Maximum assistance in SIDBI Revolving Fund for Technology Innovation is?
a) 10 crores per project
b) 1 crore per project
c) 20 crores per project
d) 5 crores per project
Answer : B
Q23 Growth Capital and Equity Assistance provides assistance to whom?
a) Large businesses
b) Existing Small and Medium Businesses
c) Only women entrepreneurs
d) None of the above
Answer : B
Q24 What is a startup?
a) a private limited company
b) registered as a partnership firm
c) a limited liability partnership
d) all of the above
Answer : D
Q25 The 10,000 Startups apart from FAME framework, offers which program/programs?
a) Warehouse Program
b) Virtual Program
c) Both
d) None
Answer : C
Q26 Warehouse Program provides________?
a) physical workspace and furniture
b) expert guidance
c) networking opportunities
d) All of the above
Answer : D
Q 27 What is the full form of NIPP ?
a) NASSCOM Industry Partnership Program
b) National Infrastructure Protection Plan
c) NASSCOM Industry Potential Plan
d) National Integrated Power Project
Answer : A
Q28. Which company shares can be freely transferable
a) Private Company
b) Public Company
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
Answer A)
SET-V
Q.1. The term company is defined under which sec of the Act?
a) Sec 3 (1)
b) Sec 4 (2)
c) Sec 2 (4)
d) Sec 1 (3)
Ans. a) Sec 3 (1).
Q.2. Property of the company belongs to
a) Company
b) Share holders
c) Members
d) Promoters
Ans. a) Company.
Q. 3. Which company shares can be freely transferable
a) Private Company
b) Public Company
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
Ans. a) Private Company.
Q.4. Minimum number of members in case of public company
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 7
Ans. d) 7.
Q.5. Minimum number of members in case of private company is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
Ans. b) 2.
Q.6. Maximum no. of members in case of private company is
a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200
Ans. a) 50.
Q.7. Maximum no .of members in case of public company is
1) 0
b) unlimited
c) 50
d) 100
Ans. b) unlimited.
Q.8. How many months did the company can continue its business u/s 45 _______
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
Ans. d) 6.
Q.9. Minimum subscription should be received with in ______days
a) 120
b) 125
c) 130
d) 135
Ans. a) 120.
Q.10. If minimum subscription is not received application money should be refunded with in
______days
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 10
Ans. d) 10.
Q.11. Liability of a member in case of a private company is
a) Limited
b) Unlimited
c) Both (a) or (b)
d) None of the above
Ans. C)
Q.12. Maximum no. of persons in case of partnership banking business ______
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 5
Ans. a) 10.
Q.13. Minimum paid up share capital in case of a private company is _______
a) 1 Lakh
b) 2 Lakhs
c) 3 Lakhs
d) 4 Lakhs
Ans. a) 1 Lakh.
Q.14. Minimum paid up share capital in case of a public company is ________
a) 1 Lakh
b) 3 Lakhs
c) 5 Lakhs
d) 7 Lakhs
Ans. c) 5 Lakhs.
Q.15. Minimum no. of Directors in case of a public company is __________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans. c) 3.
Q.16. Minimum no. of Directors in case of private company is _______
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans. b) 2.
Q.17. Age limit of Directors in case of public company is ______
a) 65
b) 70
c) 75
d) 80
Ans. a) 65.
Q.18. Age limit of Directors in case of private company is _________
a) 65
b) 70
c) 75
d) No limit
Ans. d) No limit.
Q.19. The company’s nationality is decided by its
a) Shareholders
b) Registered office
c) Place at books of accounts are kept
d) None of the above
Ans. b) Registered office.
Q.20. The liability of members if company is limited by guarantee.
a) Unpaid value of shares
b) Guarantee amount
c) Unlimited liability
d) None of the above
Ans. b) Guarantee amount.
Q. 21. The liability of members if company is limited by shares
a) Unpaid value of shares
b) Guarantee amount
c) Unlimited liability
d) None of the above
Ans. a) Unpaid value of shares.
Q.22. XYZ Company conducted an AGM on 1 st Sept.2007. On that day due to fire accident in the hall. All shareholders died. Will the company will be in existence.
a) Yes
b) No
Ans. a) Yes.
Q.23. Company’s owners are shareholders. So the company property belongs to the share holders.Do you agree with this statement?
a) Yes
b) No
Ans. b) No.
Q.24. Company will have fundamental rights.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b) False.
Q.25. XYZ Company shares are totally held by government. The company will be government.
a) True
b) False
Ans. b) False.
Q.26. If the company failed to refund application money with in 130 days from the date of issue of prospectus on non receipt of minimum subscription who will be personally liable.
a) Company
b) Directors
c) Shareholders
d) None of these
Ans. b) Directors.
Q.27. Transfer of shares in the company is
a) Restricted
b) Freely transferable
c) Prohibited
d) None of these
Ans. b) Freely transferable.
Q.28. Transfer of shares in the partnership firm is
a) Restricted
b) Freely transferable
c) Prohibited
d) None of these
Ans. a) Restricted.
Q.29. Generally Company liability is
a) Limited
b) Unlimited
c) Situation does not arise
Ans. a) Limited.
Q.30. Generally partnership firm liability is
a) Limited
b) Unlimited
c) Situation does not arise
Ans. b) Unlimited.
Q.31. Can the partners enter into the contract with the firm?
a) Yes
b) No
Ans. b) No.
Q.32. Partners are of the firm
a) Owners
b) Employers
c) Agents
d) None of these
Ans. c) Agents.
Q.33. XYZ private company had reduced to a single member and continued business more than 6months. The company’s liability will be.
a) Limited
b) Unlimited
c) None of the above.
Ans. b) Unlimited.
Q.34. In the case of partnership firm. Audit is
a) Compulsory
b) Optional
c) None of the above.
Ans. b) Optional.
Q.35. In the case of Company. Audit is
a) Compulsory
b) Optional
c) None of the above
Ans. a) Compulsory.
Q.36. X Company is holding majority of shares in Y company. Will X and Y companies will be the same.
a) Yes
b) No
Ans. b) No.
Q.37. X, is a director of X Company and X is also a director of Y Company this means X Co. and Y Co. both are same
a) True
b) False
Ans. b) False.
Q.38. Members of a company can enter contract with the company
a) True
b) False
Ans. a) True.
Q.39. Generally rights and obligations of the company are regulated in
a) A.O.A
b) M.O.A
c) Partnership deed.
d) None of these
Ans. b) M.O.A.
Q.40. Generally rights and obligations of the Partnership firm are regulated in
a) A.O.A
b) M.O.A
c) Partnership deed.
d) None of these
Ans. c) Partnership deed.
Q.41. X is a director who has experience of 20 years on this basis X co. and taken him as a
director.Can the X Co. say that the director X experience is company’s experience
a) Yes
b) No
c) Situation does not arise.
Ans. a) Yes.
SET-VI(Business Plan)
1. The _______ plan shows whether the business is economically feasible or not.
a. Financial b. Business c. Economic d. Marketing
Answer B)
2. Entrepreneurship can best be described as:
a) a process that requires setting up a business
b) taking a significant risk in a business context
c) having a strong vision
d) a process involving innovation, new products or services, and value
creation
Answer D)
3. The period of business when an entrepreneur must position the venture
in a market and make necessary adjustments to assure survival is called
the:
a) pre-startup stage.
b) startup stage.
c) early growth stage.
d) later growth stage.
Answer B)
4. It is estimated that approximately _____ percent of small businesses fail
within the first five years.
a. 10. b. 25. c. 50. d. 75.
Answer C)50%
Explanation: Fails Within 5 years, 75% fails within 10 Years
5. The _________ plan should contain control points to ascertain progress.
a. Business b. Marketing c. Financial d. Operational
Answer D)
6. The Marketing Plan section should focus for the strategies of
a. First Year b. First two years
c. First Three Years d. First four years
Answer A)
7. The business plan should be prepared by:
a. Entrepreneurs b. Consultants c. Engineers d. All of above
Answer A)
8. The ______ plan describes how the product will be distributed and priced.
a. Financial b. Production c. Marketing d. Venture
Answer C)
9. Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study?
a. To see if there are possible barriers to success
b. To identify possible sources of funds
c. To estimate the expected sales
d. To explore potential customers
Answer A)
10. The most essential role of the executive summary in the business plan is to
a. describe the company’s goals in detail
b. explain the business plan’s objectives in detail
c. identify the means by which company performance will be measured
d. attract investors
Answer D)
11. Which type of business plan is intended as the blueprint of a company's
activities and is directed to an internal audience?
a. Operational b. Full c. Summary d. Tactical
Answer A)
12. What are the primary reasons that startups need funding?
a. Cash flow challenges, capital investments, and lengthy product
development cycles
b. Business research, cash flow challenges, and costs associated with building a
brand
c. Bonuses for members of the new venture team, legalfees, and lengthy
product development cycles
d. Attorney fees, capital investments, and marketing research
Answer A)
13. The single most important part of your business plan is:
a. The Financials b. The Executive Summary
c. Management & Organization d. Operations
Answer B)
14. A busy funder must be able to read your Executive Summary in less than
a. A week b. Five minutes c. An hour d. 30 seconds
Answer B)
15. Some investors may ask to see which two parts of the
business plan first?
a. Synopsis Summary and Narrative Summary
b. Executive Summary and Management & Organization
c. Executive Summary and Financials
d. Executive Summary and Appendix
Answer C)
16. The Executive Summary must show many that:
a. Your basic business concept makes sense
b. The management is capable
c. Your business incorporates competitive advantages
d. All of the above
D)
17. Your Statement of Mission can describe your company in terms of:
a. Commitment to quality
b. Service and customer relationship
c. Price positioning, Management style and work environment
d. All of the above
Answer D)
18. Include the following when describing your products or services
a. Nature of products or services
b. Number and type of product lines
c. Unique features or innovations
d. All of the above
Answer D)
19. If applicable, include the following milestones achieved to date:
a. Secured customers
b. Date company founded
c. Stage of product development
d. All of the above
Answer D)
20. Which of the following should you include to indicate your financial status?
a. Present source of funds
b. Key ratio analysis
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
Answer A)
21. Operations:
a. Cover day---to---day functions
b. Seem mundane but are vital to success
c. Can create a competitive advantage
d. All of the above
Answer D)
22. A Break--Even Analysis shows:
a. Where money comes from and how it’s spent
b. Point at which sales exceed costs
c. Initial investment needed to begin operations
d. How you determined the figures used in the financials
Answer B)
23. An Appendix is the proper place to:
a. Provide information that that supports, confirms, and reinforces conclusions
reached in the plan
b. Give greater details about particular aspects covered in the plan
c. Include very specific details regarding market research, technology,
location, etc.
d. All of the above.
Answer D)
24. Which of the following information is appropriate for the Appendix?
a. Letters of intent/key contracts b. Endorsements
c. Photos, List of locations d. All of the above
Answer D)
25. Use the staffing budget to:
a. Plan how many employees you’ll need
b. Plan when you’ll need employees
c. All of the above
d. None of these
Answer C)
26. Corporate Social Responsibility is:
a. Good for business
b. Good for the community
c. All of the above
d. None of these
Answer C)
27. Marketing:
a. Makes customers aware of you
b. Solicits the sales and completes the orders
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
Answer A)
28. One effective way to begin the marketing plan is
a. To make a list of the information that will be needed to prepare the marketing plan.
b. Gathering Data from Secondary Sources
c. Gathering Information from Primary Sources.
d. None of the options given
Answer A)
29. The financial plan provides a complete picture of
a. How much and when the funds are coming into the organization.
b. Where the funds are going.
c. How much cash is available?
d. All of the options given
Answer D)
30. In setting marketing goals and objectives the entrepreneur must
a. Set the price
b. Distribution place
c. Must satisfy customers
d. None of the above
Answer D)
31. ________________Planning is the task of determining how a business will afford to achieve its strategic goals and objectives.
a. Business b. Marketing c. financial d. Operational
Answer C)
32. Entrepreneurs are expected to include a number of financial statements like
A. 12 Month Profit & Loss Statement
B. Three-Year Profit Projection (Optional)
C. Projected Cash Flow
D. All of the Above
Answer D)
33. A __________ is a document or spreadsheet outlining an individual's financial position at a given point in time.
a. 12 Month Profit & Loss Statement
b. Personal financial statement
c. Financial Plan
d. Marketing
Answer B)
34. Explain the daily operation of the business, its location, equipment, people, processes, and surrounding environment is a part of__________ plan.
a. Business b. Marketing c. Financial d. Operational
Answer D)
35 ___________ provides a general direction of the business and outlines the company for potential investors or potential partners.
a. General Company Description b. Marketing Plan
c. Financial Plan d. Operational Plan
Answer A)
SET-VII(IPR)
1. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of
a. Ethical value
b. Moral value
c. Social value
d. Commercial value
(Ans: d)
2. The term ‘Intellectual Property Rights’ covers
a. Copyrights
b. Know-how
c. Trade dress
d. All of the above
(Ans: d)
3. The following can not be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights to others.
a. Patents
b. Designs
c. Trademark
d. All of the above
(Ans: c)
4. The following can be patented
a. Machine
b. Process
c. Composition of matter
d. All of the above
(Ans: d)
5. In ‘quid-pro-quo’, quo stands for
a. knowledge disclosed to the public
b. monopoly granted for the term of the patent
c. exclusive privilege of making, selling and using the invention
d. None of the above
(Ans: b)
6. Trade mark
a. is represented graphically
b. is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others
may includes shapes of goods or combination of colours
c. All of the above
(Ans: C)
7. Symbol of Maharaja of Air India is
a. Copyright
b. Patent
c. Trademark
d. All of the above
(Ans: c)
8. In India, the literary work is protected until
a. Lifetime of author
b. 25 years after the death of author
c. 40 years after the death of author
d. 60 years after the death of author
(Ans: d)
9. Design does not include
a. features of shape
b. composition of lines or colours
c. mode or principle of construction
d. None of the above
(Ans: c)
10. The agreement that is enforceable by law is known as
a. Valid agreement
b. Void agreement
c. Illegal agreement
d. Unenforceable agreement
(Ans: a)
11. Which of the following is (are) included in Geographical indications of Goods
a. Handicraft
b. Foodstuff
c. Manufactured
d. All of the above
(Ans: d)
12. Trademark can be used as domain name
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes in some cases
(d) None of the above
(Ans: a)
13. Who administer UDRP?
(a) WTO (b) WIPO (c) Supreme Court (d) High court
(Ans: b)
14. Geographical Indication is
a Private right
b Community right
c Intellectual property right
d both (b) and (c)
(Ans: d)
15. Who can register Geographical Indication?
(a) Individual (b) Company (c ) Producers (d) No one of the above
(Ans: c)
16. Certification mark indicates
(a) Source (b) Quality (c ) both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
(Ans: b)
17. Certification mark can be registered in
(a) Trademark Registry
(b) Certification Board
(c ) Quality Control Board
(d) MHRD
(Ans: a)
18. Collective Mark is registered by
(a) Partnership firm
(b) Association of person
(c) Individual
(d) Company
(Ans: b)
19. Hall Mark is
(a) Trademark
(b) Certification Mark
(c ) Collective Mark
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(Ans: b)
20. Khadi is
(a) Trademark
(b) Certification Mark
(c ) Collective Mark
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(Ans: c)
21. Geographical Indication can be licensed
(a) Yes
(b ) No
(c ) Yes in some cases
(d) Yes with stringent quality control
(Ans: b)
22.Certification mark can be licensed:
FALSE
23. Trademark can be domain name.
TRUE
24. Domain name is used in real world.
FALSE
25. Geographical Indication is public good.
FALSE
26. Company can register collective mark.
FALSE
27. Trademark can be used in virtual world.
TRUE
28. ICANN head quarter is in Geneva.
TRUE
29. Certification is used along with trademark.
TRUE
30. IPC means
(a) Indian Patent Classification (b) International Panel Code
(c) International Patent Classification (d) International Postal Code
(Ans: c)
31. Patent is a form of
(a) Tangible Property (b) Intellectual Property
(c) Industrial property (d) Both (b) and (c)
(Ans: d)
32. Patent protects
(a) Discovery (b) Invention (c) New invention (d) Both (a) and (b)
(Ans: c)
33. Invention means
(a) New product having inventive step and capable industrial application
(b) New process
(c) New product or process having inventive step and capable industrial application
(d) None of the above
(Ans: c)
34. Patent right is
(a) Exclusive right (b) Natural right (c) Property right (d) Both (a) and (c )
(Ans: a)
35. Patent right is
(a) Limited period right (b) Territorial right (c) Absolute right (d) Both (a) and (b)
(Ans: d)
36. Patentability criteria includes
(a) Novelty (b) Inventive step (c) Capable of Industrial application (d) All the above
(Ans: d)
37. Prior art includes
(a) Prior publication (b) Prior Use (c) Prior Knowledge (d) All the above
(Ans: d)
38. Prior art search includes
(a) Search of Patent literatures (b) Search of Non-patent literature
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
(Ans: c)
39. Admixture is patentable in India
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Yes in some cases
(Ans: b) *
40. What protects the intellectual property created by artists?
• copyright
• geographical indications
• patents
• registered designs
• trademarks
Copyright protects the intellectual property created by artists.
41. What protects the intellectual property created by designers?
• copyright
• geographical indications
• patents
• registered designs
• trademarks
Registered designs protect the intellectual property created by designers.
42.What protects the intellectual property created by inventors?
• copyright
• geographical indications
• patents
• registered designs
• trademarks
Patents protect the intellectual property created by inventors.
43.Which of these is a geographical indication?
• BMW
• Champagne
• Hogwarts
• Playstation
• World Wide Web
Champagne is a geographical indication.
44.What does a trademark protect?
• an invention
• a work of art
• logos, names and brands
• the look, shape and feel of a product
• a secret formula
Trademarks protect logos, names and brands.
45.In most countries, how long does copyright last for?
• 10 years after the creation of the work
• 50 years after the creation of the work
• 10 years after the death of the person who created that work
• 50 years after the death of the person who created that work
In most countries, copyright lasts for 50 years after the death of the person who created that work.
46. How long do patents usually last for?
• 10 years
• 20 years
• 40 years
• 60 years
Patents usually last for 20 years.
47. If you write an original story, what type of intellectual property gives you the right to decide
who can make and sell copies of your work?
• copyright
• geographical indications
• patents
• registered designs
• trademarks
Copyright gives you the right to decide who can make and sell copies of your work.
48. Imagine a footballer sets up his own company to sell his own range of clothes. What type of
intellectual property can he use to show that the clothes are made by his company?
• copyright
• geographical indications
• patents
• registered designs
• trademarks
He can brand his clothes with a trademark to prove that they are made by his company.
49. If a company develops a new technology that improves its main product, what type of
intellectual property can they use to stop others from copying their invention?
• copyright
• geographical indications
• patents
• registered designs
• trademarks
They can use patents to stop others from copying their invention.
50. World intellectual property day is celebrated in
a) 26 April
b) 24 April
c) 27 April
d) 20 April
Ans : a
SET-VIII(Cyber Laws)
1. What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishments does section 66 of the
Indian IT Act holds?
a) Cracking or illegally hack into any system
b) Putting antivirus into the victim
c) Stealing data
d) Stealing hardware components
Ans A)
2. Which of the following is not a type of cyber-crime?
a) Data theft
b) Forgery
c) Damage to data and systems
d) Installing antivirus for protection
Ans D)
5.Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer cyber-crime?
a) Phishing
b) Injecting Trojans to a target victim
c) MiTM
d) Credit card details leak in deep web
Ans D)
7 . Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?
a) Unauthorized account access
b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
c) Email spoofing and spamming
d) Report vulnerability in any system
Ans D)
8.In which year India’s IT Act came into existence?
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Ans A)
9.Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or information is written a cyber-crime.
a) 65
b) 65-D
c) 67
d) 70
Ans A)
10.What is the punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any software’s source code from any organization, individual, or from any other means?
a) 6 months of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 50,000
b) 1 year of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 100,000
c) 2 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 250,000
d) 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 500,000
Ans D)
11. A genetic term that is concerned to the legal and regulatory aspects of Internet and computer technology.
a) Copyright law
b) Cyber law
c) Computer Crime
d) None of them
Ans B)
12. “The Electronic Transaction and Digital Signature Act-Ordinance” is Known as:
a) Intellectual Property Law
b) Cyber Law
c) Telecommunication Law
d) Data Protection Law
Ans B)
13. A criminal activity within the information technology infrastructure.
a) Digital crime
b) Intellectual property
c) Cybercrime
d) All of them
Ans C)
14. _______ is the normal Principal that regulates the use of computers.
a) Cyber Law
b) Cyber act
c) Computer ethics
d) All of them
Ans C)
15. The method of making the data or message unreadable by unauthorized people.
a) Digital signature
b) Decryption
c) Encryption
d) All of them
Ans C)
16. The law that provides a legal framework to facilitate and safeguard
electronic transaction in the electronic medium.
a) Digital signature law
b) Intellectual property law
c) Telecommunication law
Ans A)
17. The Process of ensuring the preservation, integrity and reliability of data is Known as:
a) Intellectual Property Law
b) Data Protection and Privacy law
c) Cyber
d) Law Telecommunication Law
Ans B)*
18. Premeditated, usually politically-motivated violence committed against
civilians through the use of, or with the help of, computer technology
a) Cyber stalking
b) Cyber laundering
c) Cyber theft
d) Cyber terrorism
Ans D)
19. The act of attempting to acquire sensitive information like usernames, passwords and credit card details by disguising as a trust worthy source.
a) Hacking
b) Phishing
c) Computer Virus
d) Cyber
e) stalking
Ans B)
20. Electronic transfer of illegally-obtained monies with the goal of hiding its source and possibly its destination.
a)Cyber stalking
b) Cyber laundering
c) Cyber
d) Cyber terrorism
Ans B)
21. Which of the following is computer crime?
a) piracy
b) pornography
c) harassment
d) All of above
Ans D)
22. Which of the following is not computer crime?
a) Plagiarism
b) Password guessing
c) Internet
d) virus transferring
Ans C)
23. Which of the following is included in cyber law?
a) Trademark right
b) Copyright
c) Data privacy
d) All of the above
Ans D)
24. Which of the following is not computer ethics?
a) Not to steal data
b) Not to bear false message
c) Not to use Internet
d) Not to harm the society
Ans C)
25. The term ‘cyberspace’ was used in:
a) 1984
b) 1884
c) 1985
d) 1885
Ans A)
26. The law which includes literature and art, films, computer programs, invention, designed used by traders for their goods or services is called:
a) Data Privacy Law
b) Intellectual Property Law
c) Telecommunication Law
d) Cyber crime Law
Ans B)
SET-IX
1. Which of the following is not an example of an internal environment?
a. employees.
b. office and plant layout.
c. reward system.
d. competition.
Ans D)
2. An organization's __________ embraces the behaviour, rituals, and shared meaning held
by employees that distinguishes that organization from all others.
a. external environment.
b. culture.
c. dominant culture.
d. ethics.
Ans B)
3. Commitment, competence, and consistency are three distinct characteristics that result in
____________.
a. values.
b. organizational socialization.
c. culture building.
d. attitudes.
Ans C)
4. The personal convictions that a specific mode of conduct is personally or socially preferable to another mode of conduct is called:
a. values.
b. input.
c. output.
d. none of the above.
Ans A)
5. According to the text, which of the following designates the correct sequential progression:
a. values, attitudes, beliefs, and behaviour.
b. values, beliefs, attitudes, and behaviour.
c. values, behaviour, beliefs and attitudes.
d. values, beliefs, behaviour and attitude.
Ans B)
6. Applying rationality to understand the sources and possible effects of environmental factors and to determine the organization's opportunities and threats is called:
a. work analysis.
b. statistical analysis.
c. environmental analysis.
d. none of the above.
Ans C)
7. Which of the following is not true of the Canadian workforce?
a. the workforce is aging.
b. by 1992, 3/4 of women under the age of 55 were employed for wages outside the home.
c. educational levels are decreasing.
d. an increasing number of employees at all levels come from different cultures.
Ans C)
8. Which of the following is not one of the three main economic regions of the world?
a. North America.
b. European Union.
c. South America.
d. Southeast & East Asia.
Ans C)
9. The basic areas of governmental control include:
a. investigation and publicity.
b. legislation.
c. regulatory enactments.
d. all of the above.
Ans D)
10. A company executive concerned with the disposal of his company's waste is:
a. being sensitive to ecological issues.
b. using a systems approach.
c. reflecting a concern for the political-legal environment.
d. A & C.
Ans A)
11. Which of the following is not part of the point of view espoused by Milton Friedman?
a. companies must produce goods efficiently.
b. companies must maximize profits.
c. companies must be concerned with the environment.
d. A & B.
Ans C)
12. The practices of a company for which it is accountable in relation to other parties is called:
a. social responsibility.
b. code of ethics.
c. values.
d. culture.
Ans A)
13. Actions that exceed social obligation and social reaction are defined as:
a. technological innovation.
b. values.
c. social responsiveness.
d. a code of ethics.
Ans C)
14. Social responsiveness is based on the premise that:
a. if management allocates profits to social improvement activities, it is abusing its authority.
b. organizations should be involved in preventing, as well as solving, social problems.
c. business organizations are perhaps the most effective problem solving organizations in a
capitalistic society.
d. B & C.
Ans D)
15. Standards of conduct that are reflected in behaviour that is fair and just, including but
also extending over and above what is required by laws and regulations are:
a. ethics.
b. morals.
c. values.
d. none of the above
Ans A)
.
SET-X
1 An entrepreneur is someone who assumes the major risks of a new business by
committing which of the following?
a. equity.
b. time.
c. career.
d. all of the above.
Ans D)
2. An informal group of innovative employees who are permitted to digress temporarily from their regular tasks to develop new ideas are referred to as:
a. underground.
b. skunkworks.
c. yahoos.
d. intrapreneurs.
Ans B)
3. It is estimated that approximately _____ percent of small businesses fail within the first five years.
a. 10.
b. 25.
c. 50.
d. 75.
Ans C)
4. Which of the following is not a personal characteristic often found in an entrepreneur?
a. self-confident.
b. independent-minded.
c. perceptive.
d. follower.
Ans D)
5. The period of business when an entrepreneur must position the venture in a market and make necessary adjustments to assure survival is called the:
a. pre-startup stage.
b. startup stage.
c. early growth stage.
d. later growth stage.
Ans B)
6. Which of the following is usually included in a business plan?
a. detailed description of the product or service.
b. marketing and promotional plans.
c. management and staffing.
d. all of the above.
Ans D)
7. Which of the following is a reason why a person might prefer to purchase a franchise rather than open a completely new business?
a. higher failure rate.
b. increased independence.
c. ability to benefit from previous experience.
d. reduced royalty fees.
Ans C)
8. According to the textbook, which of the following management functions is the least well done?
a. planning.
b. organizing.
c. leading.
d. controlling.
Ans A)
9. Which of the following is not a common motivation of an entrepreneur?
a. desire for independence.
b. search for personal and professional growth.
c. desire to maintain the status quo.
d. search for more rewarding work.
Ans C)
10. Which of the following are risks for entrepreneurs in small business?
a. interference with personal lives.
b. psychological stress.
c. social and family pressure.
d. all of the above.
Ans D)
11. A strategy of courting other companies that have knowledge, ideas or promising products is known aswhich type of intrapreneurship?
a. administrative intrapreneurship.
b. opportunistic intrapreneurship.
c. acquisitive intrapreneurship.
d. imitative intrapreneurship.
Ans C)
12. A person within a company who takes a leadership role and is positioned to help ensure the success of an idea or innovation is often referred to as a:
a. supporter.
b. champion.
c. leader.
d. evangelist.
Ans B)
13. Which of the following is a purpose of a business plan?
a. to attract financing.
b. to inform competitors of plans.
c. to discipline the entrepreneur to think of all aspects of the proposed venture.
d. a & c.
Ans D)
14. Who said that the job of the entrepreneur is "creative destruction"?
a. Peter Drucker.
b. Pierre Trudeau.
c. Joseph Schumpeter.
d. Brian Mulroney.
Ans C)
15. All of the following were invented by a Canadians except:
a. IMAX multiscreen projection.
b. snowmobile.
c. twin engine airplane.
d. post-it note.
Ans D)
